Quick Answer: What Does Aristotle Mean By An End?

What goal is both final and self sufficient?

Aristotle begins his study on ethics by asserting that there is some ultimate good which is both complete and self-sufficient, and defines this good as happiness.

There must be one final end of all human actions, because a human action by definition is one that is done on purpose and for a definite goal..

What five criteria does Aristotle say must be met for something to be the final good for humans?

Although happiness (eudaimonia) meets the criteria established for the final good (i.e., attainable, an end in itself, self-sufficient, and most desirable), Aristotle recognises that these criteria tell us little about the nature of happiness and a “clearer account” is required.

What is Aristotle’s doctrine of the mean quizlet?

“The doctrine of the mean” refers to Aristotle’s view that. virtue is an intermediated position between two extremes. Aristotle says that to be a just person, it is not enough to act justly.

What is the final good for Aristotle?

What does Aristotle mean when he writes that the good for man is self-sufficient? That good is desired for its own sake. The good involves a teleological system that involves actions. The final good for human beings is happiness; it is good-in-itself, the end of action, and hence self-sufficient.

What does Aristotle mean by virtue?

Virtue for the Greeks is equivalent to excellence. … Aristotle defines moral virtue as a disposition to behave in the right manner and as a mean between extremes of deficiency and excess, which are vices. We learn moral virtue primarily through habit and practice rather than through reasoning and instruction.

What is Aristotle’s moral theory?

Aristotle. The moral theory of Aristotle, like that of Plato, focuses on virtue, recommending the virtuous way of life by its relation to happiness. … Aristotle opens the first book of the Nicomachean Ethics by positing some one supreme good as the aim of human actions, investigations, and crafts (1094a).

What is the highest good to Aristotle?

eudaimoniaFor Aristotle, eudaimonia is the highest human good, the only human good that is desirable for its own sake (as an end in itself) rather than for the sake of something else (as a means toward some other end).

How does a person become virtuous according to Aristotle?

Virtue, therefore, manifests itself in action. More explicitly, an action counts as virtuous, according to Aristotle, when one holds oneself in a stable equilibrium of the soul, in order to choose the action knowingly and for its own sake. … For Aristotle, moral virtue is the only practical road to effective action.

What does Aristotle mean by a complete life?

Nicomachean Ethics, 1101a10) According to Aristotle, happiness consists in achieving, through the course of a whole lifetime, all the goods — health, wealth, knowledge, friends, etc. — that lead to the perfection of human nature and to the enrichment of human life.

What is the highest form of happiness according to Aristotle?

Aristotle concludes the Ethics with a discussion of the highest form of happiness: a life of intellectual contemplation. Since reason is what separates humanity from animals, its exercise leads man to the highest virtue.

What are the two kinds of virtue according to Aristotle?

Aristotle distinguishes between two kinds of virtue: moral virtue and intellectual virtue Aristotle says that moral virtues are not innate, but that they are acquired by developing the habit of exercising them. An individual becomes truthful by acting truthfully, or becomes unselfish by acting unselfishly.

What is mean According to Aristotle?

Aristotle defines virtue or excellence as an arithmetic mean between the two extremes of excess and defect (i.e., too much or too little). 2. … If we take Aristotle’s Doctrine of the Mean seriously, it would imply that the right act would be a mean between the extremes of too good and too bad.